Q&A – based on online activities from:
Dessler, G., and Cole, N. (2010). Human Resources Management in Canada: Canadian 11th Edition. Toronto: Pearson Canada Inc.
Orientation and Training
1. A well developed orientation program offers all of the following benefits to the employer except:
a. Fewer grievances
b. Fewer employees are needed
c. Increased morale
d. Lower health claims
e. Lower turnover of employees
2. Socialization is best described by which of the following phrases?
a. A process of instilling attitudes, values, and patterns of behaviour in the new employee
b. A process to learn how to use common equipment in the workplace
c. A training process
d. An opportunity to get to know colleagues
e. A process aimed to giving the new employee a better idea of the organization’s competitive position
3. Bob has just started working with wonder corp. and has just spend the day with Jan, a very disgruntled employee at wonder. Bob now wonders if he should quit and take an offer from another company. What could wonder corp have done to address this issue?
a. Isolated bob from disgruntled employees.
b. Train jan to a greater extent
c. Institute a well-developed orientation program
d. Fired jan before hiring bob
e. Hired someone who would be more loyal than bob.
4. The training program for janitorial employees at Safeco requires a grade 12 reading level although the job itself requires only a grade 5 reading level. Joseph, whose fourth language is English, has performed very poorly on the training program due to reading level. Based on this, what is the most likely conclusion?
a. Joseph will be unsatisfied in the job
b. Joseph has been subjected to discrimination due to the program design
c. Joseph doesn’t have the skills to do the job
d. Joseph has been appropriately screened based on ability
e. The question provides insufficient information to answer.
5. Which of the following is not a requirement for a training manager today?
a. An understanding of learning styles
b. The ability to speak the language of business
c. An ability to perform the task that is being trained for
d. An ability to demonstrate training as an investment
e. An understanding of the organization’s business.
6. Mike has a kinaesthetic learning style. Which of the following would be a more effective learning situation for Mike?
a. Interactive internet
b. A role play that involves sitting at a table
c. A physical task that can be practiced
d. A lecture
e. Video presentation
7. In order to most effectively transfer new skills from the learning situation to the job, which of the following courses of action would be most appropriate?
a. Have trainees spend time in the actual work situation
b. Maximize the similarity between the training situation and the work situation
c. Always teach the trainees theory before the practical aspect of the job.
d. On-the-job training is always the best training situation
e. Trainers should come directly from the job site.
8. Which of the following is a step in the training needs analysis?
a. Cost analysis
b. Employee analysis
c. Training effectively analysis
d. Motivation analysis
e. Task analysis
9. What is the difference between task analysis and performance analysis?
a. Task and performance are the same thing
b. Performance analysis must be done before task analysis
c. Performance analysisi deals with thte job, thask analysis delas with the person doing the job.
d. Task analysis looks at the task and performance analysis looks at the person in the job
e. Task analysis deals only with newly designed jobs.
10. Distinguishing between the employee’s ability to do a task and his willingness to do a task is part of what element of the training process?
b. Task analysis
c. Employee analysis
d. Performance analysis
e. Motivation analysis
11. Which of the following issues could be addressed through training?
a. Bob does not like to do his job
b. Bob does not know how to do his job
c. Bob does not want to do his job
d. Bob does not understand why he should do his job
e. Bob does not do his job because he gets paid less that his friend sam.
12. Which of the following is not a benefit of on-the-job training?
a. Trainees learn by actually doing the job
b. Trainees learn while producing
c. Trainees can make errors in low-cost environment
d. It is inexpensive
e. Trainees get quick feedback on their performance
13. Which of the following statements would best describe job instruction training?
a. An informal learning situation in industry
b. Training people how to train others
c. It is the most widely used from of training in Canada
d. A combination of classroom and on-the-job training
e. A step-by-step process to teach a logical sequence in a process.
14. Yolanda wants to do some carpentry work in her house but she has not done it before. Which of the following would be most effective in training Yolanda to do carpentry work in her home?
a. Computer-based training
b. Programmed learning on the computer
c. A lecture in a classroom
d. Videotape illustrating in steps how to complete each step
e. There is not one preferred way of educating Yolanda
15. What is the major difference between apprenticeship training and on-the-job training?
a. Apprentices learn in a combination of classroom and OJT
b. Apprentices have to stay with one employer for several years, OJT learners do not
c. Apprentices are only in the trades, OJT learners are not
d. Apprentices are not paid, OJT learners are
e. Apprentices and OJT are the same
16. Hussein, a trainer with the Vancouver police department, has to provide a large amount of knowledge regarding the criminal code to large groups of trainees in a relatively short period of time. Which of the following training techniques would you recommend to Hussein?
a. Apprenticeship training
c. Job-instruction training
d. Classroom training
e. On-the-job training
17. Which of the following is not an advantage of online training?
a. Online training allows adults to learn when they want
b. Online training can be used globally
c. Online training can be accessed by people who have limited time
d. Online training is less expensive than classroom instruction
e. Online training can easily be changed.
18. Mariam wishes to train a large number of people who are located throughout a large city. The training requires that learners interact with each other. Which of the following would be most appropriate?
b. Vestibule or simulation training supplemented by on-the-job training
c. Online training supplemented by some classroom sessions
d. Classroom training, only to permit interaction
19. Which of the following would be a purpose of validation of a training program?
a. The trainer can determinate if the trainees are ready for training
b. The trainer can determinate if the task analysis was done correctly
c. The trainer can determinate whether or not the desired improvement in skill result from the training
d. The true cost of training is determined
e. All of these are purposes of validation of a training program
20. Juan had recently attended a training session. He found that he could not understand the training manual and the classroom session was not relevant to him. In talking with other participants, he found that all of them had the same opinion. What could the trainer have done to have avoided this situation?
a. The trainer should have done a better task analysis
b. The trainer should not change, trainees always complain
c. The trainer should have used online training
d. The trainer should asked the trainees what they wanted to learn
e. The trainer should have validated the training program.
21. Which of the following would be a purpose of a train-the-trainer workshop?
a. The trainer can learn innovative new ways to present content
b. The trainer can gain a greater understanding of the trainees
c. The trainer can learn about the company running the training
d. The trainer can become familiar with the training location
e. All these are purposes of a train-the-trainer workshop.
22. Which of the following is likely result of validation of a training program?
a. The validation will be the same as the rest of the training program
b. The trainees in the validation will learn more than others
c. The trainees in the validation will get more attention that others
d. The program will be revised to increase effectiveness
e. The trainees in the validation will feel manipulated.
23. What is the difference between evaluation of training and validation of training?
a. Evaluation determines if training can be improved before it is offered, validation is after it is offered
b. Validation is determining if the right training is offered to the right trainees
c. Validation is transfer of training, evaluation is not
d. Validation and evaluation are different terms for the same thing
e. Evaluation is determining if training objectives have been met, validation determines if training can be improved.
24. According to the Canadian council on learning, what percentage of Canadians fell below the internationally accepted literacy standard for coping in the modern world in 2008?
25. Sensitivity training is best described by which of the following phrases?
a. Is a process to develop outstanding customer service
b. Is a form of outdoor experimental learning used to build teams.
c. Develops understanding of views of different groups
d. Enhances people’s senses in order to help people with a disability
e. Is a process to develop literacy
26. Which of the following has not been identified as a critical competence required to succeed in the global economy?
a. Cultural literacy
b. financial literacy
c. social literacy
d. personal literacy
e. business literacy
27. what is the main difference between orientation and training?
a. Training has to do with learning about things, orientation has to do with learning about people
b. Orientation is part of training
c. Training addresses doing the job, orientation addresses operating in the organization
d. Training is mandatory, orientation is not
e. Orientation is continuous, training lasts only for a limited time
28. Which of the following would not typically be included in an orientation program?
a. A tour of the company’s facilities
b. A summary of upcoming training
c. An interview to determinate fit in the organization
d. An overview of performance appraisal
e. A review of duties and responsibilities
29. Mildred has just joined a large organization in a unionized position. Which of the following elements of mildred’s orientation is found only in unionized situations?
a. A summary of unresolved issues related to acquisition
b. An overview of the history of the company
c. A copy of the collective agreement
d. A form for employee feedback
e. An overview of performance appraisal
30. Negligent training occurs when:
a. The trainer is not properly qualified
b. Employees are not disciplined for poor performance
c. Employees engage in negligent actions during training
d. An employee did not learn what was taught in a training program
e. A poorly trained employee harms a third party
31. Which of the following is not a step in the five-step training process?
a. Instruction design
b. Motivational analysis
e. Needs analysis
32. Which of the following has been identified as a benefit of training?
a. Training makes employees more employable so they can get other jobs
b. Training makes older workers remain in the workforce
c. Training makes up employment costs
d. Training strengthens employee commitment so people don’t leave their job
e. Training makes companies more likely to expand in more competitive markets
33. Which of the following statement regarding training and demographics is true?
a. Older workers access more training than younger workers
b. Older workers access training mostly to increase their income
c. Lower-skilled workers access more training than higher-skilled workers
d. Higher-income workers access more training than lower-income workers
e. Lower-income workers access more training than higher-income workers
34. Which of the following has been identified as one of the most crucial aspect of the training program?
a. Requiring the trainee to use all of their new skills immediately upon completion of the training program
b. Holding training at a convenient time and place for the trainees
c. Paying a bonus to employees who attend the training program
d. Preparation of the employees for the training program
e. Recognizing completion of the training program through the awarding of a certificate.
35. Which of the following would no be a valid objective of a training program?
a. To provide a basis for a increase in pay for the trainee
b. To provide a benchmark for evaluation of success of the program
c. To provide a focus for the efforts of the trainer
d. To specify what the trainee should be able to do at the completion of the program.
e. To provide a focus for the efforts of the trainee.
36. Ari is frustrated as he is unable to get his work done on time. The computer program that he is using continues to crash. What would likely be most effective in remedying this situation?
a. This does not appear to be a problem that can be resolved through training
b. Train ari on another system as a backup
c. Trin ari to work without using this system
d. Train ari to troubleshoot the system
e. A, b and c are all correct.
37. George cannot do his assigned task. Which of the following reasons for this could be remedied by training Geroge?
a. There is a lack of equipment in the workplace
b. George does not know to use equipment in the workplace
c. The company has hired people who are not literate
d. There are not clear standard of performance in the job
e. The manager tends to micro-manage everything that george does
38. Which of the following would not usually be included in a task analysis record form?
a. Conditions under which the task is performed
b. Quality of performance of the task
c. A list of tasks in a job
d. Specific knowledge required
e. Pre-requisite skills of the person doing the job
39. Which of the following is not a situation where audiovisual techniques would be appropriate?
a. When training is used organization wide
b. When you need to illustrate how a certain sequence should be followed over time
c. When trainees are exposed to events not easily demonstrated in a classroom
d. When training is used over a large geographic area
e. When the classroom technique would simply to be boring
40. Programmed learning offers which of the following benefits relative to other learning techniques?
a. Learners get hands-on practice doing what they are learning
b. Learners learn facts more quickly
c. Learners learn critical-thinking skills that they would not learn elsewhere
d. Learners learn are exposed to the same material
e. Learners can learn using a computer
41. Which of the following would not be considered an audiovisual training technique?
a. Interactive computer programs
c. Audio CD that can be listened to by learners
d. Videotapes or DVDs
42. Which of the following would be an example of vestibule or simulation training?
a. A store cashier who is learning while serving customers
b. Welder trainees welding pipe on a pipeline under supervision
c. A medical student learning to operate on a virtual model
d. A police officer learning to deal with conflict through a role play
e. All of these are examples of vestibule or simulation training
43. Pierre is director of training for a large bank. He wants to train a large number of tellers who work in bank branches across Canada to use an upgraded computer program. What training technique would be most appropriate for Pierre?
a. Computer-based training
b. Simulation training
c. Online training
d. Apprenticeship training
e. Classroom training
44. According to the Canadian society for training and development, e-learning is:
a. Not as effective as other forms of learning
b. Requires little institutional design
c. Difficult to implement
d. Generally as effective as other forms of learning, but at a marginally higher cost
e. Generally as effective as other forms of learning, and less costly
45. A higher percentage of firms use computer-based training in Canada than in the united states. This is generally considered to be due to:
a. The limited computer skills among American trainees
b. Language barriers in Canada
c. Canada’s geography
d. The high cost of CBT
e. Language barriers in the US
46. Which of the following is not a category of training outcome to be measured?
47. Sam totally enjoyed her recent training program and she throroughly understands all of the material that she learned. Yet, in the workplace, her actions are exactly the same as before she attended the training. What category of training outcome would correctly assess sam’s situation?
48. Which of the following is an example of controlled experimentation in the evaluation of a training program?
a. Results of a group who receive training are compared to results of a similar group who have not received training
b. The results of the same group are compared before and after the training
c. Results are evaluated as a group goes through a training program
d. A and B are both controlled experimentation
e. A, B, and C are controlled experimentation
49. Which of the following is true regarding measuring learning outcomes?
a. There is a strong correlation among all of the measures of training outcomes
b. There is a strong correlation between behaviour and results
c. There is a strong correlation between reaction and behaviour
d. There is little correlation between all of the measures of learning outcomes
e. There is a strong correlation between learning and results
50. Which of the following is not an action that will increase the transfer of training?
a. Training in a pleasant environment
b. Assess learners on their level of ability before training
c. Ask trainees to design the training
d. Provide opportunities to practice skills
e. Management should actively support training
51. When should evaluation of a training program occur?
a. Before the training program takes place
b. During validation of the training program
c. While training is occurring
d. After training has occurred
e. During training or after training has occurred
52. Which of the following is a reason why training is needed for first-time supervisors/managers?
a. People are promoted for technical competence but succeed in management on people skills
b. The new manager will have to operate in a global environment
c. The literacy skills of employees may be very low
d. Managers are now much younger than they were 10 years ago
e. The new manager will have to operate in a team environment
53. Which of the following is a benefit of diversity training?
a. Only A and B are benefits of diversity training
b. It inhances cross-cultural sensitivity among supervisors
c. A, B, and C are all benefits of diversity training
d. It improves customer service
e. It aims to create more harmonious relationships in the workplace
54. A response to the challenge of literacy noted in your text is:
a. Industry has to implement training strategies with the objective of raising literacy levels
b. Prepare training material for a very low reading level
c. Include literacy training in all training programs
d. Training focuses on younger workers who have higher levels of literacy
e. Provide a mentor to learners with marginal literacy while involved in a training program
1. What is the difference between performance management and performance appraisal?
a. Performance management is the same as performance appraisal
b. Performance management is part of performance appraisal
c. Performance management is the complete process involving all elements relating to improving employee performance
d. Performance appraisal is more accurate than performance management
e. Performance appraisal is measuring performance, performance management is controlling it.
2. Which of the following would not be considered part of the performance management process?
a. Training and development
b. Disciplinary action
c. Pay for performance
d. Employee health and safety program
e. Career management
3. Michelle is a bright and promising new employee in her organization but she does not seem to be living up to expectation as shown by her performance appraisal. She is pleased by the pay that she receives and is looking forward to participating in development workshops. What part of the performance management process seems to be the greatest problem in Michelle’s case?
a. Conducting development discussions
b. Defining performance expectations
c. Conducting performance appraisals
d. Determining performance rewards
e. Discussing career opportunities
4. Bob, a very successful salesperson paid on straight commission, has been told that he should be less aggressive with customers and has attended workshops that have shown him how to effectively communicate in a less aggressive fashion. Yet bob continues to behave in the same way. Which of the following would most likely be the issue?
a. Bob’s personality may not allow bob to change his behaviour
b. The reward system in bob’s organization does not match the performance expectations
c. Bob does not understand the behavioural expectations in this position
d. Bob may simply not want to change
e. Bob may no be receiving the appropriate level of coaching to change his behaviour to match expectations.
5. Chan is unsure of how successful his most recent project was. What should he do first?
a. Monitor his own performance
b. Ask for feedback from his manager
c. Ask for feedback from his co-worker
d. Postpone his performance appraisal until things are certain to be positive
e. Await the results of this performance appraisal.
6. What is measured using the typical graphic rating scale?
b. Overall performance
7. The alternation ranking, paired comparison, and forced distribution methods of performance appraisal attempt to overcome a problem with graphic rating scale. What problem is this?
a. Lack of specific relationship to the job
b. Tendency for managers to rate all employees as average
c. Tendency for traits to be too generic
d. Lack of clarity in values of appraisal
e. Lack of clarity in what is being appraised
8. Which of the following is a criticism that can be applied to the graphic rating scale, the forced distribution, and paired comparison method?
a. All methods focus too much on performance
b. All methods focus too much on behaviour
c. All methods focus too much on traits
d. There is an overreliance on numerical measurement
e. All methods focus too much on results.
9. Grace, a firefighter, is engaged in critical incident method of performance evaluation. What would likely be the behaviours that would be most important in this evaluation?
a. Behaviours involved in staying in shape
b. Behaviours involving in fighting a fire
c. Behaviours involving maintaining equipment
d. Behaviours demonstrated in training
e. Behaviours involved in dealing with the public
10. What is the major difference between the critical incident method and narrative forms?
a. Critical incidents are simply specific examples of narrative forms
b. Critical incidents focuses on examples of desirable or undesirable behaviours, narrative forms focus on performance issues
c. Narrative forms focus only on important issues and performance
d. Critical incidents are focus only on important issues and performance
e. Narrative forms tell a complete story, critical incidents do not.
11. Which of the performance rating methods is most likely to demonstrate the problem of “unclear performance standards”?
a. Narrative forms
b. Graphic rating scales
c. Behaviourally anchored rating scales
d. Forced distribution
e. Critical incident method
12. Which of the following is a good objective in a management by objectives system?
a. Cut heating cost by 2%
b. Reduce employee turnover in 2010
c. Reduce overtime by 5% in 2010
d. Hire more staff members who have university degrees
e. Increase sales by 10%
13. Vanessa is a stunning woman who routinely gets very good performance appraisals from her male supervisors in spite of having results that are very similar to those of her co-workers. This is likely an example of which rating problem?
a. Appraisal bias
b. Recency effect
c. Halo effect
d. Leniency error
e. Similar-to-me bias
14. Paula, who is new in her job, is disturbed by the behaviour of her staff. They are avoiding performance appraisal meetings, changing their behaviour a lot when they think that she is observing them and are doing only what they think they are being evaluated on. What may be the problem here?
a. Paula’s staff members are overworked
b. Paula is not trained in performance appraisal
c. Paula’s staff may be concerned that insufficient time is deboted to performance appraisals
d. Paula’s staff appear to have had a negative previous experience that they are reacting to
e. Paula’s staff do not trust her
15. Which of the following is not one of the guidelines for developing an effective appraisal process?
a. Use objective ratings, such as essays, as only one component of the appraisal
b. Performance appraisals should be carried out by a member of the HR department
c. Appraisal items must be drawn from a job analysis
d. Incorporate a formal appeal mechanism in the appraisal
e. Appraisers should have regular contact with the employee whose performance is being evaluated.
16. Tradeco has noticed an increase in turnover and a drop in satisfaction among low-level employees. Supervisors are at a loss to explain what is happening but some departing employees have mentioned negative supervisory behaviour as a factor in their decision to leave. What could tradeco do about this?
a. Conduct a peer appraisal by supervisors
b. Conduct an appraisal of supervisors by a committee of managers
c. Conduct a self-appraisal of supervisors
d. Conduct a subordinate appraisal of supervisors
e. Conduct a management appraisal on supervisors.
17. Who would not be involved in 360-degree appraisal?
18. Mike has completed the appraisal of the performance of sam and has found that sam’s performance is significantly below expectations. What should mike do?
a. In a private setting explain to sam why his performance level is low relative to expectations
b. Postpone action until have another appraisal to determinate trend
c. In a group setting, show sam that he is doing more poorly that others
d. Postpone action as sam will figure this out for himself
e. In a private setting show sam what his performance level is relative to expectations
19. Which of the following is not included in guidelines for conducting an appraisal interview?
a. Do not get personal
b. Be specific and direct
c. Develop an action plan
d. Control the conversation
e. Encourage the person to talk
20. As a manager, Edwin is faced with a difficult problem: todd, who reports to Edwin, has demonstrated disappointing performance, which Edwin believes is based on a misunderstanding of expectacions. What type of appraisal interview should edwin conduct?
a. A satisfactory performance – nonpromotable employee interview
b. None, Edwin should ask his superiors to dismiss todd
c. None, Edwin should simply tolerate todd’s performance for now until clear grounds for dismissal appear
d. An unsatisfactory performance-correctable interview
e. An unsatisfactory performance-promotable employee interview
21. When a manager meets with a satisfactory employee to discuss his or her performance and focuses on how to maintain that performance, it is known as a:
a. Satisfactory-nonpromotable appraisal interview
b. Satisfactory-promotable appraisal interview
c. Difficult performance appraisal
d. Incentive-based appraisal
e. Development-based appraisal
22. Effective performance management involves all of the following, except:
a. Having an administratively efficient system with sufficient communication support
b. Investing in employee development planning
c. Avoiding the influence of individual goals on business strategy
d. Showing leadership and accountability at all levels of the organization
e. Ensuring close ties among appraisal results, rewards, and recognition outcomes
23. The performance management techniques in low-performing are generally the same as those in high-performing organizations.
24. Jennifer is working hard as an administrative assistant at provincial senior university. She likes her co-workers and is happy with her job but really thinks that the work that she does, particularly compiling statistics on student retention and performance, is pretty midless. What seems to be missing in jennifer’s job?
a. It appears that Jennifer does not receive sufficient pay in her job to keep her motivated so whe should be rewarded for her performance.
b. Jennifer should be working on tasks that are more interesting
c. There should be a direct connection for Jennifer from her work to the strategy of the organization to provide meaning to the work
d. A more motivating atmosphere
e. Jennifer should receive more feedback to let her know whether she is doing a good job or not.
25. Which of the following would be the best performance expecatations?
a. Flight attendants are expected to demonstrate safety procedures to passengers
b. Magicians are expected to make some children laugh
c. Customer service clerks are expected to be cheerful when dealing with customers
d. Cashiers are expected to process 20 customers per hour
e. Mechanics are expected to be able to repair brakes on most makes of cars, foreign and domestic
26. What is the major difference between a job description and performance expectations?
a. Performance expectations change from month to month, job descriptions do not
b. Job descriptions are more specific than performance expectations
c. Job descriptions are a legal requirement, performance expectations are not
d. A job description states the duties, tasks, and responsibilities, performance expectations only include tasks
e. Performance expectations are very specific to the position and are measurable.
27. In the performance management process when should coaching and feedback take place?
a. On an ongoing basis
b. Every six months unless there is a problem
c. Before a performance appraisal
d. Shortly after performance appraisal
28. In the performance management process, who should be primarily responsible for monitoring performance?
a. The department manager
b. A committee of the employee’s peers
c. The human resources deparment
d. The employee him/herself
e. The immediate supervisor
29. Paula is completing a performance rating for on members of her staff who are lifeguards. She wants to ensure that she can identify specific behaviours to give her staff feedback for improvement. Which method should be use?
a. Behaviourally anchored rating scale
b. Narrative forms
c. Graphic rating scale
d. Forced distribution
e. Management by objectives
30. What is the major difference between behaviourally anchored rating scale and management by objectives?
a. behaviourally anchored rating scale focus on behaviour and MBO focuses on results
b. MBO focus on behaviour and behaviourally anchored rating scale focus on results
c. MBO focuses on numerical measurement, behaviourally anchored rating scale do not
d. MBO is more specific in its measures than behaviourally anchored rating scales
e. behaviourally anchored rating scale focus on numerical measurement, MBO does not
31. Miriam wants to improve as an employee and needs to know specifically how she has performed and how she can improve. Which method of performance appraisal would be most appropriate for this purpose?
a. Graphic rating scale
c. behaviourally anchored rating scale
d. Critical incident method
e. Forced distribution method
32. Tradeco uses the forced distribution method for performance appraisal within all of its departments and in all of its retail stores. Which of the following would be true?
a. The behaviour of employees are fairly evaluated
b. Performance of employees can easily be compared across departments
c. The performance of employees in one department cannot be easily compared to performance in another department.
d. The resulting appraisals are valid determinants for pay decisions across the organization
e. The results generated by employees are clearly measured
33. Yolanda has been operating a retail store for approximately one year. Although she provides ongoing feedback to her staff, she wants to institute a more formal measurement system to appraise the performance of her staff, all of whom do different jobs. Which appraisal tools should she use?
a. behaviourally anchored rating scale
b. alternation ranking method
c. graphic rating scale
d. web-based performance appraisal
e. forced distribution
34. which of the following is not an advantage of behaviourally anchored rating scales relative to other measures?
a. The measure has clear standards
b. The measure is consistent
c. The tool measures independent performance dimentions
d. The measure can be used across different jobs in an organization
e. The measure is more accurate
35. Which of the following is not a problem with management by objectives?
a. The process takes time
b. The cost of the program can be high
c. The objectives may not be measurable
d. There may be a tug of war in setting objectives between the manager and the employee
e. The objectives may be unclear
36. Salvador works as a member of a self-managed work team in which team members collectively are fully responsible for running all aspects of the team’s job. Which performance appraisal process would likely be most valid in this circumstance?
a. Subordinate appraisal
b. A peer appraisal
c. A committee composed of management
e. Supervisor appraisal
37. What is a key disadvantage to using a management by objectives approach to performance appraisal?
a. It’s too time consuming
b. It can cause disagreements among employees
c. It is unfair as all employees are, in fact, excellent
d. It is difficult to develop
e. It results in a predetermined number of people in each group.
38. Performance appraisals are generally straight-forward, objective exercises and most companies believe they are effective
39. When a performance appraisal scale is too open to interpretation of traits and standards, it leads to which of the following structural problems in the PA process?
a. Appraisal scales should be open to interpretation to ensure fairness
b. Simplistic performance standards
c. Unclear performance standards
e. Central tendency
40. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of 360-degree performance appraisal?
a. It takes too much time
b. There is limited research on its effectiveness
c. It does not always fit with an organization’s strategic fit
d. Employees may lack trust in the system
e. Employees are not capable of completing honest self-appraisals.
41. A performance appraisal technique that uses multiple raters, such as perers, supervisors, and clients is known as:
c. Management by objectives
42. What should a manager do when preparing for an appraisal interview with a nonsupervisory employee?
a. Increase observations of the employee and review the employee’s most recent deliverables
b. Schedule as many interviews as possible in one day, to avoid a loss in productivity
c. Block off at least two to three ours per interview
d. Ensure a public space is available for the interview
e. Give the employee at least a week’s notice to review his or her work and job description.
43. According to your textbook, which of the following is not advice to consider when conducting a performance appraisal interview?
a. Be direct and specific
b. Do not get personal
c. Encourage the person to talk
d. Collect feedback on fellow employees
e. Develop an action plan
44. When dealing with an employee’s defensiveness in a performance appraisal, it’s important to address his or her argument and take immediate action
45. What is the best way to ensure effective performance management?
a. Ensuring performance appraisals are conducted on time each year
b. Have HR staff conduct appraisals
c. Requiring managers to adopt a 360-degree approach
d. Using a rating scale
e. Maintaining quality dialogue between manager and employee
46. While performance appraisals are difficult for managers, they cannot be eliminated because they are legal requirement of the Canadian labour code.
Strategy Pay Plans
1. Which of the following would not be included in total rewards?
b. Work/life programs
c. Monetary compensation
d. Health and safety programs
e. Performance and recognition programs
2. Which of the following is the major driver of total rewards systems?
a. Organizational strategy
b. Legal requirements
c. Environmental issues
d. Employee satisfaction
e. Competitive pressure
3. Erica was excited to join Ultimate Industries but now she stays with the organization due to its excellent salary and benefits package. What seems to be the issue here?
a. The total rewards system attracted Erica with unreasonable expectations
b. The total rewards system is not sufficient to retain Erica
c. The total rewards system retains but does not engage Erica
d. Erica is satisfied with her job
e. There is no problem in this situation
4. Bob has worked as a system analyst for XY corp. for three years. Jennifer is an inexperienced newly hired system analyst who gets paid the same amount as Bob. What may be an issue here?
a. The organization has a pay equity issue
b. External equity may be an issue for Jennifer
c. Internal equity may be an issue for bob
d. Internal equity may be an issue for Jennifer
e. External equity may be an issue for bob
5. What is the main purpose of doing a job evaluation?
a. To determine the value of a job external equity
b. To determine the duties, tasks, and responsibilities in a job
c. To determine the process of a salary survey
d. To determine pay rates as the next step in the process
e. To determine the value of a job for internal equity
6. Which of the following are not generally considered to be a compensable factor in job evaluation?
e. Working conditions
7. Job evaluation is often completed by a job evaluation committee. What is the major benefit of doing job evaluation by committee instead of by an individual?
a. The committee members may split the work involved
b. The committee can bring different perspectives to the task
c. Some members of the committee may have greater knowledge of the job than others
d. The committee has greater skill than the individual
e. The committee can bring in perspectives from outside the organization
8. John’s job has been identified as benchmark job within his organization. What does this mean?
a. John’s job will be subjected to significant changes
b. John’s job is common and can be compared across departments and organizations
c. John will be paid a bonus for doing this job
d. John’s job will likely be declared redundant
e. John’s job is unique within the organization
9. What is the major difference between the classification method and the point method of job evaluation?
a. The point system is based on quantitative analysis, the classification system is not
b. The classification system requires benchmark jobs, the point system does not
c. The classification method is more accurate than the point system
d. The classification method is based on development of job groups, the point system is not
e. The classification method is always used in the public sector, the point system is not
10. Howie has decided to use the classification method for job evaluation. What would be howie’s first step?
a. Determine the compensable factors to create groups
b. Review job descriptions
c. Choose a benchmark job
d. Interview job holders
e. Develop the list of weights and degrees of factors.
11. Which of the following is an advantage of skills-based pay?
a. Employees are more efficient as they are more skilled
b. Employees are more flexible as they have the skills to do more jobs
c. Employees are more productive as they apply their skills
d. Employees are more mobile as they are more skilled
e. Employees are more satisfied as they are paid for their skill
12. Mildred is a designer with an online game production company. Which method of payment would be most appropriate to compensate mildred?
a. A system where midred can move through ranges based on merit
b. A broad band pay system
c. Based on the sales of the game that she has a small part in developing
d. A system where mildred can move through ranges based on seniority
e. Skills- or competency-based pay
13. A pay-for-knowledge system means that employees are compensated not for the job they do, but the range and depth of knowledge they are capable of using.
14. McMilan un engineering firm, employs professionals engineers who work on major projects. Recently engineers have been leaving and the company has found that their pay rates, set by job evaluation and salary surveys, are too low. What would you advise this firm to do?
a. Select different benchmark jobs in the process
b. Do the salry survey again
c. Pay market-determined rates for jobs as job evaluation is not appropriate of this jobs
d. Do the job evaluation again
e. Raise the pay level of all job grades by an amount that would make the firm competitive.
15. Which of the following is not generally a factor in executive and managerial salary determination?
a. Professional development
c. Long-term incentives
d. Short-term incentives
16. Most Canadian shareholders believe that CEOs receive fair incentive-based compensation for their work and are worth what they are paid.
17. In order for an employer to implement pay equity, what would be required?
a. A survey of the relative earnings of men and women in the organization
b. Permission of the court to put a job evaluation program in place
c. A job evaluation across the organization using gender-neutral factors
d. A evaluation of the work performed
e. A performance appraisal of all employees
18. Which of the following provinces does not have pay equity legislation?
c. Nova scotia
d. British Columbia
e. Prince Edward Island
19. Which of the following most accurately explains the term “pay equity”?
a. Equal pay for people regardless of age
b. Equal pay for people of all characteristics who do the same job
c. Equal pay with competitive organizations
d. Equal pay for men and women who do different jobs that are of equal value
e. Equal pay for men and women who do the same job
20. Which of the following would not be found in employment/labour standards legislation?
a. Record keeping of pay information
b. Compensation based on gender
c. Paid holidays
d. Overtime pay
e. Minimum wage
21. Within a ---- system, development and career opportunity may include sabbaticals, mentoring, tuition assistance, and apprenticeships.
a. Strategic pay plan
b. Total rewards
c. Pay equity
22. A total reward approach is replacing the previous approach of managing compensation elements in isolation more and more because of the recent changes in the business environment, including a move to a knowledge-based economy, which puts a premium on the value of its employees.
23. According to the textbook, 52 percent of Canadians intend to stay at their current employer, this suggest that an equal number of Canadians should be reporting that they are engaged at work.
24. What is the purpose of the first three steps – determining compensable factors, determining weights, assigning points to each sub-factor – in the point system of job evaluation?
a. To create the job evaluation manual
b. To assign points to jobs
c. To assign jobs to categories
d. To determine pay rates for jobs
e. To determine the value of benchmark jobs
25. Which of the following is true?
a. Pay grades are developed through the point method
b. Pay grades give salary levels directly
c. Pay grades are developed through the classification method
d. Pay grades are not used in the process of setting salary
e. Pay grades are developed through either the classification or point system
26. Which of the following would typically not be included in a salary survey?
b. Pay for performance information
c. Benefits information
d. Pay rates for benchmark jobs
e. Satisfaction survey data
27. TareQ is currently determining appropriate pay rats in his organization, which includes jobs that are specific only to one industry in which there are 30 firms. What would be the most appropriate method to gather salary information?
a. Review government wage surveys
b. Review online compensation surveys
c. Review internet job ads
d. Survey employment agencies
e. Conduct a questionnaire survey with other employers
28. Darrel is a graduate accountant who is seeking a new job and is currently setting his salary expectations. Which of the following would be the most appropriate resource for Darrel to use?
a. Salary surveys produced by accounting associations
b. Government salary surveys
c. Informal discussions with firms
d. A review of internet job ads
e. A review of salary surveys published by the Toronto Board of Trade
29. XY corporation operates using a self-managed work team process where all team members are expected to produce at an extremely high level and to do a wide range of jobs within the teams. What would be appropriate at XY corporation?
a. Very few pay grades to recognize their flexibility
b. In teams, a formal pay structure does not apply
c. May pay grades and ranges to recognize their specialties
d. A piece rate pay system for high productivity
e. One simple pay rate for all employees
30. Which of the following is a benefit of using pay ranges within each pay grade?
a. The pay range system is very easy to calculate
b. The organization can budget pay increases more easily
c. Organizations can start employees at a low rate of pay and save money
d. Employees can see pay increases based on merit and seniority and don’t lose motivation
e. Employees will not be able to compare pay with counterparts at other firms because the ranges are different
31. John’s pay has been selected as a red circle pay rate. What does this mean to john?
a. John’s job is overpaid and therefore will be eliminated
b. John’s job is underpaid according to the organization’s pay system and this will be addressed by a pay increase
c. John’s job is specific to the organization that John works within and cannot be compared to others
d. John’s job is overpaid according to the organization’s pay system and this will be addressed by a pay freeze
e. John’s job is a benchmark job that is being compared to others in other organizations
32. Which of the following is not a common problem of competency-based pay system?
a. It fails to recognize the importance of performance
b. It may not meet pay equity requirements
c. Employees can become dissatisfied with the measuring system
d. It is not clear how to measure competencies
e. Studies show that it is not efficient in the first year of its existence
33. An important aspect of competency-based pay systems is extensive theoretical training and traditional assessment of competencies.
34. Skeena industries, a large paper manufacturing company, wishes to have tradespeople perform several different jobs in their facility. To do this, the tradespeople require different licenses for which they must study and pass exams. Which pay system whould be most appropriate for these employees at skeena industries?
a. A broad band pay system
b. Skills or competency-based pay
c. A system where tradespeople can move through ranges based on seniority
d. Based on the sales of paper that the company produces
e. A system where thradespeople can move through ranges based on merit.
35. Why is job evaluation difficult when it comes to professional jobs such as engineers and scientists?
a. Highly skilled professionals are too demanding when it comes to compensation
b. Professionals lack the social skills to participate in a term-based work environment
c. The success of R&D rest solely on the success of the sales and marketing team
d. It is difficult to quantify and measure knowledge and the successful application of knowledge
e. It is difficult to establish criteria and performance indicators for employees with advanced degrees.
36. Unlike with most employee pay plans, executive/managerial compensation plans tend to focus less on performance incentives
37. Why do some people argue that top executives are worth what they are paid?
a. The individuals who make this argument are directly beneficiaries of CEO compensation packages
b. The market is very competitive, so high salaries are necessary
c. No one argues that CEOs deserve their pay
d. It’s important to create a kingship role in a major corporation
e. The job of CEO is high stakes – more than any other employee, the CEO’s work has a direct impact on the success of an organization.
38. According to your textbook, the gender wage gap in Canada is … and has remained unchanged since 1995
a. 46.1 cents on the dollar
b. 71 percent
c. Approximately 30 percent
d. 53.9 percent
e. 29 percent
39. There are many factors that contribute to the wage gap, such as education, unionization, and parenting choices, but discrimination in pay rates is not generally considered a reason for discrepancies in pay equity today.
40. In the long term, what is the best way to eliminate the wage gap caused by systemic discrimination?
a. Require private-sector organizations to institute bonus pay for all female employees.
b. Provide incentives to organizations to hire women for the highest paid jobs
c. Force men to become primary caregivers
d. Eliminate the existence of male-dominated and female-dominated jobs
e. Make pay equity legislation more binding
41. Pay equity is not simply an issue of women being paid the same salary as their peers within an organization, but concerns the equal valuing of women’s work, especially in the valuing of women-dominate jobs
Pay-for-Performance and Financial Incentives
1. Allan, a new supervisor at XY Corporation, has run into significant resistance from production workers when he attempted to implement new technology that would enable workers to produce more with less work. The workers, who are paid on a piece rate basis, were told that there would be an adjustment to the production standard but that they would make more if they exerted the same effort as in the past. They still resisted. What outcome of piece rate would lead to this situation?
a. The workers may have to learn something new
b. If the performance standard is changed, the workers would no longer be on piece rate
c. The workers may believe that quality will suffer
d. The workers dislike the paper work that a change entails
e. The workers resist any change to production standards as this may reduce their income
2. What is the main difference between a straight piecework plan and a guaranteed piecework plan?
a. With a guaranteed plan, the employer guarantees a certain minimum wage plus piece rate
b. With a straight plan, employers pay a straight salary
c. With a guaranteed plan the workers' salary fluctuates
d. With a guaranteed plan, the workers guarantee a certain production level
e. With a guaranteed plan, employers pay only a guaranteed wage
3. Alice is an auto mechanic. According to her employer, it should take Alice one hour to replace a starter in a car and so she would be paid an hourly rate for doing this job. Alice changes starters in only45 minutes, which is 25%fasterthan anticipated so Alice gets paid 25% more than her pay rate. What pay system does Alice's employer use to pay Alice?
a. Piece rate
b. Standard hour plan
c. Bonus system
d. Guaranteed piece rate
e. Group incentive plan
4. George, a college instructor, has decided to award the class average mark to all members of the class. What type of incentive system would this be?
a. A commission system
b. Standard hour plan
c. Group incentive system
d. Guaranteed piece rate
e. Piece rate system
5. George, a college instructor, has decided to award the class average mark to all members of a small class. What would be a likely behavioural outcome of this incentive system?
a. Class members would lessen their average effort reduce the mark
b. Class members would try to sabotage each other's performance
c. Class members would stop exerting effort
d. Class members would work hard to help the weaker members to push up their mark
e. Class members would aggressively compete
6. Mark has determined which groups of employees will be eligible for an annual bonus and has determined the total budget for bonus, what should he do next?
a. Determine the individual amount based on corporate profit
b. Divide the budget by the number of people to get the bonus amount per person
c. Determine the individual amount based on a measure appropriate to the level of the employee
d. Determine eligibility for bonuses
e. Con1rm the fund size
7. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of an annual bonus from an employer's standpoint?
a. The bonus is paid at a certain point in time
b. The employees start to view the bonus as an annual entitlement
c. The bonus is not always tied to individual performance
d. The bonus will motivate employees to higher performance
e. The bonus is paid equally to all employees at a certain level
8. What is the major difference in purpose between shot- and long-term incentives?
a. Short term encourage people to stay with the company whereas long term encourage people to grow
b. Short term rewards are paid on short-term results, long-term are paid after long-term results
c. Short term rewards performance in the short term and long term encourages long-term performance
d. Short term are paid out frequently and long term are paid infrequently
9. What is the difference between a stock option plan and stock based plan?
a. In stock plan the employee can become an owner of the firm, in an option plan, the employee lends the company money
b. Stock and option plans are two names for the same thing
c. In a stock plan, the employee receives shares, in an option plan the employee receives the option to buy shares at a given price
d. In a stock plan, the employee receives a percent of the value of inventory of the firm, in an option plan the employee can buy shares
e. In an option plan the employee can become an owner of the firm, in a stock plan, the employee lends the company money
10. What is the major difference between stock option plans and share unit plans?
a. Stock options and share units are the same
b. Stock options can increase in value
c. The use of stock options s increasing n Canada
d. Stock options are only for senior employees
e. Share unit plans only provide the promised incentive if goals are reached
11. Tradeco requires the development of long-term relationships behween tis salespeople and its industrial customers, however, it is also necessary that sales are made. Which compensation system woud you recommend for Tradeco salespeople?
a. A relatively large salary and potentially smaller commission
b. Straight salay
c. Hourly wage
d. A small salary and an annual bonus based on company peformance
e. A small salary and potentially large commission
12. Which of the following is not a benefit of a commission plan from an employer's perspective?
a. Long-term relationships are built by salespeople
b. Commission is easy to compute
c. High performing salespeople are attracted to the organization
d. Sales are made
e. Sales costs are directly related to sales
13. Straight salary plans are not recommended for sales positions that focus on account servicing and prospecting.
14. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of a 100% commission plan for salespeople?
a. It can lead to small clients been neglected.
b. It makes it difficult to recruit high-performance salespeople.
c. It leads to high turnover.
d. It provides no 1nancialsecurty for workers.
e. It can lead to wide fluctuations in pay.
15. What s the major difference between merit pay and a bonus?
a. A bonus is based on achievement
b. Merit can be cancelled after it is awarded
c. Merit is based on organizational performance
d. A bonus is paid at one point in the year, merit is not
e. Merit is an increase to base salary
16. What is the first step in determining a merit pay?
a. Determine the budget for merit pay increases
b. Determine if there has been an improvement n sales
c. Do a valid performance appraisal
d. Determine if the organization is profitable
e. Determine if the merit pay will be individual or team based
17. Becky is a research chemist with Astra Labs. The work that she does may produce advancements in drug products five to 10 years into the future. What would be an Appropriate incentive system for Becky?
a. A bonus based on outcomes produced
b. A new machine for her lab
c. A bonus based on research completed
d. An increase n her salary
e. Commission based on the profitability of drugs when they are produced
18. Which of the following is one of the major disadvantages of a profit sharing plan?
a. Employees receive profit share several times a year
b. Employees do not see a connection between what they do and profit
c. Employees get to keep some of the organization's profit
d. Employees have to produce an improvement to receive profit share
e. Employees stay with the organization
19. Apo Products has implemented a gainsharing plan. In the first year of operation, employee suggestions contributed to a reduction in costs of $50 000 for Apo, however a severe recession caused Apo to have no profit for the year. What should happen in this case?
a. gainshare will be paid as the employees generated a reduction n cost therefore reducing the loss
b. gainshare is essentially a specific profit share plan so there will not be a payment
c. The employees will lend the gainshare to Apo to help the company survive
d. No gainshare money will be paid to employees as there b no profit
e. Gainshare will only be paid after the firm returns to profitability
20. A profit sharing plan is plan whereby management-level employees share in the company's profits
21. When was the progressive Scanlon Plan first developed by Joseph Scanlon?
22. Jennifer has implemented a very successful pay-for-performance plan where production is up 30 percentinthe1rstyear. However, the machinery used to produce is now falling apart and it appears that some of the products produced and sold have been of very poor quality. What appears to have happened n this situation?
a. Profit share has the effect of convincing employees that the employer is very profitable
b. The incentive was not gainshare or these issues would have been resolved
c. Employees have done what was rewarded but have neglected critical aspects of their jobs
d. The incentive program was implemented in the wrong environment
e. Jennifer did not monitor employee behaviour properly
23. Geof is an employee of a large ferry operator n BC. Although he s receiving his profit share, he s not at all motivated to work hard. What most likely s the issue?
a. Profit share is not paid on an individual basis
b. Profit share is not related to motivation
c. Profit share is typically too small for motivation
d. Geof can not see a connection between his effort and profit
e. Money is not a motivator
24. Which of the following is not a principle that supports the implementation of incentive plans?
a. Individualize the incentive so that it has meaning to each individual employee
b. Match incentives to organizational culture
c. Keep group incentive clear and simple
d. Overcommunicate, employees want to know that they are not faceless nor expendable
e. Link incentives to measurable competencies
25. Bob has just received his performance bonus from Tradeco and was starting on his projects for the next six months when he quit his job saying that he did not feel valued.
What could be changed at Tradeco to make Bob feel valued?
a. Raise his base salary
b. Verbally recognize Bob's excellent performance before his peers
c. Give Bob a card of recognition when he receives his performance bonus
d. Assure Bob that he all have job security with Tradeco for the need two years
e. Increase his bonus to at least 15 % of salary
26. According to your textbook, what is the most common form of employee recognition?
a. Gift certificates
c. Company logo gear
d. Certificates or plaques
27. One study showed that only 50 percent of managers give employees recognition for excellent performance; this is likely due to the fact that employee recognition programs are not cost effective.
28. Bob manages a four- member house-framing crew, which builds the frames of houses. He wants to encourage his group to be highly productive and to work together. Therefore he is offering a large bonus to the worker on the crew who works the fastest. What would you advise Bob?
a. This is a good plan to recognize hard work
b. This is not a good idea as the weaker workers will become demotivated
c. This ha good plan as all workers will compete for the bonus
d. This ha poor plan as the bonus has no measureable standard
e. As the group has to be productive and work together, they should receive a group incentive
29. What is the key difference between a profit-sharing plan and an individual incentive bonus?
a. Bonus is predictable amount every year, profit share is not
b. Profit share is a predictable amount every year, bonus is not
c. Profit share depends on corporate profit, not on individual peformance
d. Profit share is paid annually whereas a bonus b paid more frequently
e. Profit share is generally larger than individual bonuses
30. Piecework is a relatively new approach to incentive plans for production workers.
31. What is one of the main disadvantages to piecework incentive plans?
a. It is not legal in parts of Canada.
b. They are difficult to calculate and track.
c. They don't generally motivate workers to be productive.
d. Workers often resist attempts to raise production standards because it leads to a decrease n pay.
e. It cannot meet the labour laws, which dictate a minimum wage
32. When individuals in a production environment have interrelated jobs, which is the best incentive plan?
a. Guaranteed piecework plan
b. Group incentive plan
c. Straight piecework plan
d. Standard hour plan
e. Minimum n wage plan
33. What is the first step in setting executive compensation?
a. Ensure that executive compensation complies with legal requirements
b. Define the stock option plant to be offered
c. Define the benefits to be offered
d. Define the issues facial the company
e. Define the base salary to be offered
34. Shot-term incentive bonuses for executives and managers can lead to a decrease of 25 percent or more in total pay, relative to the previous year.
35. Which of the following is not a criterion for determining eligibility for short-term incentive bonuses?
a. Salary-level cutoff point
b. Salary grade
c. Key position
d. Age and seniority
e. Extent of a job's impact on profitability
36. The amount of money designated for bonus payments is always determined by a set percentage of the company's net income.
37. What is a capital accumulation program?
a. A plan abandoned by most Canadian companies following the recent global recession
b. A short-tern incentive plan reserved for senior executives
c. A plan reserved for production workers
d. A long-term incentive plan most often reserved for senior executives
e. Along-term incentive plan used almost exclusively by the public sector
38. Bob runs a small business dealing n industrial tools. The sales representative who sells product to him keeps changing and is very hard to contact even though Bob always buys a little and is a nice person. This is true of all of the representatives of the various companies that he buys from. What the likely compensation system that these people are working under?
b. Straight commission
c. Hourly salary
d. Salary and commission
e. There is insufficient information here
39. Bob is hiring a new salesperson who will be selling the company's electronic products to retail stores, which will be selling them to customers. As such his person must develop a relationship with stores, find new stores to sell to, and bund sales of new, more profitable products into the future. What compensation system would you recommend?
a. Salary plus commission
b. Salary plus sales commission plus profit-based commission
e. Salary plus bonus
40. Traditional sales compensation approaches must change to accommodate the changing nature of business in the internet age and sales success is often determined by a team of individuals who work to position a company, establish and deepen customer relationships, and service accounts.
41. Which type of combination plan allows a salesperson who is compensated by commission to maintain a stable income by accessing future commission earnings when sales are low?
a. Commission plus salary
b. Salary plus commission
c. Commission plus drawing account
d. 100 percent commission
e. Commission plus bonus
42. Merit pays directly related to the performance appraisal system, and therefore has the danger of being considered unfair by employees who resent their employer's approach to performance appraisals.
43. which of the following is not a disadvantage to a merit pay system?
a. Employees usually believe they are above average, and merit pay systems can be def1ating.
b. It can create resentment among employees.
c. Supervisors often minimize the differences between employees.
d. It relies too heavily on the validity of the performance appraisal system
e. It detracts from performance because everyone is paid the same.
44. Which of the following is not true about the unique nature of pay incentives for professional employees?
a. Industry recognition for high-caliber work is a major motivation for performance.
b. Professionals require years of formal study and training.
c. Non-salary incentives such as equipment and career support are very important.
d. Professionals are traditionally underpaid.
e. The time cycle for professional incentive plans tends to be longer, to reflect research and development processes.
45. Bob's employer has just implemented an employee share ownership plan. What is the likely behavioural outcome of this incentive?
a. Bob is likely to stay with the organization
b. Bob is likely to exert extra effort for the organization
c. Bob is likely not to want as much of a pay increase
d. Only A and B above
46. What is the most important aspect of the Scanlon and other gainsharing plans?
a. The formula used
b. A schedule for payment under the plan
c. A clear understanding of the organization's strategy
d. The elements included in the plan
e. A spirit of co-operation among the people involved
47. Which of the following is not a basic feature of a Scanlon incentive plan?
a. The sharing of benefits formula
b. Industrial design
e. The involvement system
48. Which of the following is not an example of an organization-wide incentive plan?
b. Pront-sharing plans
c. Merit pay
49. According to the textbook, there are 1ve things to remember before deciding to use an incentive plan. Which of the following is not included in that list?
a. Rewards help to build relationships.
b. Pay is not a motivator.
c. Performance pay cannot replace good management.
d. Firms get what they pay for.
e. Rewards may undermine responsiveness.
50. Which of the following is not one of the seven principles that support effective implementation of incentive plans?
a. Match incentives to organization culture.
b. Link incentives to measurable competencies.
c. Remember that the work itself is a great incentive
d. Keep group incentives clear and simple.
e. Do not over communicate
51. Incentive programs, which provide extrinsic rewards, run the risk of reducing the intrinsic motivation of employees, making them focus their concern on 1nancial gain rather than the value of a job well done.
52. For employee recognition to be effective, it should be all of the following except:
53. Employees generally prefer recognition from top executives than from their immediate supervisors.
54. Which of the following is not true about employee recognition programs?
a. They can act as a strategic change effort if recognition criteria are aligned with business strategies
b. They can build a sense of pride in accomplishments and inspire people to increase their efforts.
c. They do little to encourage workers to focus on exceeding expectations.
d. They are key corporate communication tools.
e. They are more effective than cash in achieving improved employee attitudes and productivity.
Employee Benefits and Services
1. What s the main function of benefits?
a. To motivate workers to encourage their friends and family to join the organization
b. To motivate workers to work harder overall
c. To motivate workers to join and stay with the organization
d. To motivate workers to work hard at a specific time
e. To motivate workers to work hard on a particular project
2. Since salary increases are relatively low in today's workplace, employee benefits are a key element of compensation.
3. Which of the following is not a mandatory benefit provided or required by government?
a. Workers compensation
c. Canada/Quebec pension plan
d. Supplementary health care
e. Employ insurance
4. Jeannette is planning to quit her job and live on employment insurance (El) benefits for a while. what would you advise Jeannette?
a. El will not pay if person quits a job for no good reason
b. El will not pay unless the person is fired for cause
c. El pays all people who are unemployed for up to six months
d. El will pay for 45 weeks if a person quits a job for no reason
e. El will pay for a short time if person quits a job without a reason
5. Which of the following most clearly describes supplemental unemployment benefits?
a. They are extra benefits paid when people are ill
b. They are extra benefits paid to families of unemployed people
c. They are extra benefits paid by government
d. They are extra benefits paid to people who have greater need
e. They are extra benefits paid from a fund created by an employer
6. Janet is very upset that she has Employment Insurance premiums deducted from her pay as she feels that government should pay for employment insurance. which of the following is true?
a. Employment Insurance is funded by employers and employees
b. Employment Insurance is funded by employers
c. Employment Insurance is funded by employees and government
d. Employment Insurance is funded by government
e. Employment Insurance is funded by employees
7. Which of the following groups of individuals are included in the Canada/Quebec pension plan?
a. Volunteer workers
b. Casual workers
c. Migrant workers
e. Self-employed individuals
8. Pierre believes that his current income will continue after he retires at age 65 and begins to collect Canada Pension Plan (CPP) benefits, which will be his only income. What would you advise Pierre?
a. CPP pays an amount based on how an individual paid into the plan
b. CPP pays approximately25% of pre-retirement salary to a maximum
c. CPP pays 50% of pre-retirement salary to a maximum
d. CPP pays an amount based on how much an individual pays into the plan
e. CPP pays the equivalent of pre-retirement salary to a maximum
9. What would normally be covered by supplementary health care/medical insurance?
a. Medical expense not covered by provincial plans
b. Prescription drugs
d. Only A & B
e. All of the above
10. What is the difference between a deductible and co-insurance in supplementary health care?
a. A deductable is generally a larger sum than co-insurance
b. Co-insurance b generally only paid once per year
c. A deductable ha set amount per year, Co-insurance ha percentage of the total cost
d. They are the same thing
e. Co-insurance ha set amount per year, a deductable ha percentage of the total cost
11. Hassan is human resource manager for a call centre where people spend their work day seated at a computer with limited mobility and sometimes experience high levels of stress. As a result many employees smoke and have poor diets. What would likely be the best way for Hassan to cut the health care costs in his organization?
a. Produce a restricted list of drugs for coverage
b. Add co-insurance to the plan
c. Create health care spending accounts for his employees
d. Conduct a risk assessment in the workplace
e. Promote health in the workplace
12. What is the difference between a sick leave plan and supplementary health care benefits?
a. A sick leave plan provides income replacement while supplementary health care pays medical expenses
b. A sick leave plan maybe used by employees even if they are not really sick
c. A sick leave plan only pays for a set number of days when the employee is ill
d. A sick leave plan more short than supplementary health benefits
e. Sick leave becomes effective only after an employee has been ill for six months
13. Bob is an employee with a defined contribution pension plan. During a recession, share and bond prices both fell. What effect would this have on Bob if he retires during the downturn?
a. None because the value of his pension will be paid anyway
b. It will make it easier for him to buy shares and bonds with the value of his pension
c. It will reduce his benefit so he may have to defer retirement
d. None because he does not manage the plan
e. None because Bob will collect Canada Pension Plan benefits
14. A …. pension plan contains a formula for determining retirement benefits, whereas a ….. pension plan specifies what contribution the employer will make to an employee's retirement fund.
a. defined benefit; defined contribution
b. defined contribution; defined benefit
c. fixed contribution; defined benefit
d. fixed benefit; RRSP
e. fixed benefit; fixed contribution
15. Which of the following is not a factor that is likely to contribute to the expansion of phased retirement in Canada?
a. Some people who intended to retire cannot afford to
b. Regulations are being loosened to permit this practice
c. People are leaving longer, increasing the amount of money needed to retire.
d. A labour shortage provides the need for employees to stay with their employers
e. The average retirement age has risen in other jurisditions
16. Bob is an employee with a de1ned contribution pension plan. During an extended expansion, share and bond prices both rose rapidly. What effect would this have on Bob if he retires during the expansion?
a. Pensions and share prices are unrelated
b. No effect as Bob will collect his fixed pension anyway
c. Bob's pension will be larger than it would be otherwise
d. No effect as Bob will collect Canada Pension Plan benefits
e. Bob's pension would fall as prices are high
17. When employers offer a defined contribution plan, they are obligated to educate, inform, and advise employees on their investment decisions, especially when their employees have little background in 1nancial maters.
18. When designing a pension plan, which of the following is not a legal or policy issue that must be considered?
a. Retirement age
b. Rate of return
19. Mildred's performance at work has declined and she has been absent far more than usual. When you, as Mildred's supervisor, ask what is happening she tells you that there are some personal issues that she is dealing with right now. What should you do?
a. Consult your supervisor regarding what to do
b. Tell Mildred that she must focus on her work or her job will be in jeopardy
c. Take note of this but do nothing
d. As a friend, seek to help Mildred
e. Refer Mildred to the organization's EAP program
20. Which of the following would likely not be included in an EAP program?
a. Legal problems
b. Medical problems
c. Marital/family problems
d. Harassment issues
e. Stress issues
21. Which of the following is not a benefit of subsidized childcare?
a. Improved productivity
b. Improved employee health
c. Reduced turnover
d. Reduced absenteeism
e. Improved job satisfaction
22. Jennifer and Hassan have two children, one in elementary school and one in preschool and Jennifer is the primary caregiver for her ailing mother. Jennifer and Hassan both work full time with the same organization and both are productive high-skilled employees. Which of the following would be true in this situation?
a. They would stay with the organization and be more productive if child and elder care was made available
b. The childcare requirements in this case definitely outweigh the eldercare requirements
c. Jennifer and Hassan's family responsibilities would not have an impact on their work
d. Only Jennifer will show productivity and absenteeism issues
e. The eldercare requirements in this case definitely outweigh the childcare requirements
23. Which of the following is true?
a. Work family conflict is negative only for employees in stressful lobs such as police officers and air traffic controllers
b. Work family conflict is negative only for employees at a senior level in organizations
c. Work family conflict is negative only for employees at all levels in organizations
d. Work family conflict is negative only for employees at organizations that do not have a positive organizational climate
e. Work family conflict is negative only for employees at lower levels in organizations
24. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a flexible benefit plan?
a. Employees can tailor benefits to their stage of life
b. Employees may make bad choices through lack of knowledge
c. Employers may have to spend time explaining benefits to employees
d. Employees choose the benefit that they need
e. Employers have greater cost control
25. Karen, director of human resources for a school district, is in a difficult situation as employees are complaining about the benefits available to them and the CEO is calling for strict control of costs. What should Karen do to maximize the return on benefits for the organization?
a. Tighten the eligibility requirements so that employees have to work for the organization for two years before receiving benefits
b. Increase salary and let employees buy benefit coverage themselves
c. Have employees choose which benefit they want for a given level of benefit credit of expense
d. Determine what other employers are doing and copy it
e. Increase the benefit demanded by the majority of employees
26. Which of the following is the first step in developing a benefits program?
a. Determine what prospective employees are demanding in benefits
b. Determine business strategy and how benefits will help achieve it
c. Determine what the organization can afford
d. Determine the costs of benefits
e. Determine what is being offered in the market
27. Benefits are at an all-time high. which of the following is not a factor in the cost of benefits?
a. Employers comprehend the market value of benefits
b. An aging population
c. A looming labour shortage
d. Advances in health care
e. Benefits ad administration is an increasingly specialized task
28. Bill was playing Pacman on his office computer. He leaned back in his chair, fell over and suffered a serious injury. Bill filed a workers' compensation (WCB) claim. What would happen regarding the claim?
a. Bill would get paid as WCB is a no fault insurance system
b. Bill would get paid because the government funds the system and all injured citizens get paid
c. Bill would get paid as he had paid into the system
d. Bill would not be paid because he engaged n unethical behaviour regarding his employer's property
e. Bill would not be paid as he should not have been playing on his computer.
29. Jennifer runs a small construction business that has experienced a significant jump in workers compensation costs. what can Jennifer do to reduce costs?
a. Institute an accident prevention program
b. Stop reporting accidents
c. Remove some workers from workers compensation coverage
d. Pay over a longer period of time
e. Pay less to the workers compensation system in return for lower benefits
30. Which of the following is not considered in the calculation of costs of workers compensation premiums paid by employers?
a. The length of time the worker s injured
b. The industry that the employer is in
c. The employer's intention to improve working conditions
d. The overall cost of injury in that industry and with that employer
e. Number of claims of an employer
31. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Mandatory holidays vary by jurisdiction and are paid
b. Mandatory holidays vary by jurisdiction and are unpaid
c. Employers decide on which holidays should be given to employees
d. Mandatory holidays are the same across Canada and are paid
e. Mandatory holidays are the same across Canada and are unpaid
32. In Canada, employees are entitled to vacation. Which of the following statements is true regarding employee vacations?
a. Vacation entitlements are the same across Canada and are unpaid
b. Vacation entitlements vary by jurisdiction and are unpaid
c. Employers decide on host much vacation should be given to employees
d. Vacation entitlements vary by jurisdiction and are paid
e. Vacation entitlements are the same across Canada and are paid
33. Mariam is concerned about her job and returning to work after her maternity period. Which would be true?
a. Maternity 15-18 weeks, followed by return to work, and is paid by the emnployer
b. Maternity 15-18 weeks, followed by parental leaves of 34-52 weeks and it is not paid by the employer
c. Maternity leave is at the discretion of the employer
d. Maternity 15-18 weeks, followed by parental leaves of 34-52 weeks and it is paid by the employer
e. Maternity 15-18 weeks, followed by return to work, and it is not paid by the employer
34. Bob has been terminated from his position with Tradeco after 11 years with the organization, due to change in business. which of the following is true?
a. Bob will receive at least a minimum amount specified by employment standards
b. Bob's employer can decide if and how much money Bob will receive
c. Bob will only receive payment if many people are laid off also
d. Bob will receive at least a minimum amount specified by the federal government
e. Bob would not receive any payment except for work that he has done
35. Chan is trying to decide in ether to provide a short-term disability plan or a sick leave plan to his employees. what should you tell Chan?
a. Sick leave and short-term disability are the same thing
b. Sick leave plans are only used by larger organizations
c. Sick leave plans may encourage people to use the accumulated sick leave when they are not sick
d. Sick leave plans are taxable, short-term disability is not
e. Short-term disability may encourage people to use their plan when they are not sick
36. Sarah suffers from lupus, an illness that presents itself only occasionally but unpredictably, during which Sarah cannot work. Most of the time, however, Sarah is a highly productive employee. what can Sarah's employer do?
a. Replace Sarah
b. Using disability management, minimize the impact of the disease on Sarah's income
c. Place Sarah on long-term disability as her illness is so unpredictable
d. Using disability management, minimize the impact of the disease on Sarah's co-workers
e. Using disability management, minimize the impact of the disease on Sarah's ability to work
37. What is the relationship between a group RRSP and a deferred profit-sharing plan (DPSP)?
a. A DPSP is set up for employees, an RRSP is set up for managers
b. They are the same
c. An RRSP cannot be withdrawn early, a DPSP can
d. An RRSP holds the employees contribution, a DPSP holds the employer's contribution
e. An RRSP is set up for employees, a DPSP is set up for managers
38. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when designing a pension plan?
a. Portability of the plan
c. The benefits offered by competitors
d. The retirement age of participants
e. The benefits formula
39. Bob M an employee whit a defined contribution pension plan. During an extended expansion, share and bond prices both rose rapidly. What effect would this have on Bob if he retires during the expansion?
a. No effect as Bob will collect his fixed pension anyway
b. Pensions and share prices are unrelated
c. No effect as Bob will collect Canada Pension Plan benefits
d. Bob's pension would fall as prices are high
e. Bob's pension will be larger than it would be otherwise
40. When employers offer a defined contribution plan, they are obligated to educate, inform, and advise employees on their investment decisions, especially when their employees have little background in financial maters.
41. When designing a pension plan, which of the following is not a legal or policy issue that must be considered?
b. Retirement age
c. Rate of return
42. Which of the following is not generally considered a personal service offered by employers as pad of employee benefits programs?
a. Credit unions
c. Use of company car
d. Recreational opportunities
e. Counselling services
43. Subsidized childcare and eldercare are not considered personal services because they do not focus solely on quality of life, but rather on an employee's ability to perform his or her job.
44. Which of the following is not generally considered a job-related service provided by employers?
a. Food services
b. Counselling services
c. Educational subsidies
d. Subsidized transportation
e. Subsidized childcare
45. …. Are company-sponsored programs that help employees cope with personal problems interfering with, or that have the potential to interfere with, their job performance and well-being.
a. Family-friendly benefits
c. Well-being workshops
d. Counselling programs
46. Family-friendly benefits are important because most employees cite the work/life balance as important and work/family conflicts have a tendency to spill over into job performance.
47. Which of the following is not considered an option in a flexible benefit plan?
b. Worker's compensation
d. Pension plan
e. Educational services
48. According to your textbook, there has been a decrease in the use of flexible benefit plans, suggesting that the disadvantages to the employer outweigh the considerable advantages to the employee.
Occupational Health and Safety
1. How many Canadians, on average, die on the job everyday?
a. Less than 1
2. Who is responsible for health and safety in Canadian workplaces?
b. Joint health and safety commitees
d. The federal government
e. Shared between the employer and employee
3. The correct procedure for cleaning a large mixing machine is to switch it of, lock the switch in off position, and clean it using a large tool while standing outside the machine. Alex has just found one of his employees sitting inside a large machine cleaning it with as small tool while the switch was enable; an exceedingly dangerous practice. What should Alex do?
a. Nothing, the machine is being cleaned
b. Remove the employee from the machine, train him, and monitor his behaviour before allowing him to clean the machine
c. Remove the employee and discipline him
d. Remove the employee fro n the machine and do not allow him to clean the machine in the future
e. Fire the employee
4. Michelle is a supervisor in a workplace in which helmets, safety glasses, and boots are mandatory. Bob, an experienced worker whom others look up to, continually refuses to wear his helmet even after being told to do so three times by Michelle. What should Michelle do?
a. Nothing, Bob knows what he is doing
b. Post more notices about the workplace safety equipment requirements to encourage Bob to change.
c. Fire Bob
d. Nothing to Bob but use Bob as an example of poor behaviour to other workers
e. Suspend Bob from the workplace until he wears his helmet
5. which of the following is true regarding workplace health and safety regulations n Canada?
a. The rules are complex and differ for different industries
b. The rules are complex and the same across Canada
c. The rules are the same across Canada
d. The rules are straightforward, broad, and cover all industries
e. The rules are straightforward but there are many exemptions for different industries
6. Marlene cleans office floors with Handy Dandy cleaning solution, a commercial cleaning product. If a quantity of this product spills, what should Marlene do?
a. Consult the Material Safety Data Sheet(MSDS)
b. Use another cleaning product to clean up the mess
c. Clean up the mess with soap and water
d. Consult the WHMIS guide book
e. Call her supervisor for directions
7. Which of the following was not party to the development of WHMIS legislation?
a. Provincial governments
c. Federal government
d. Organized labour
e. Municipal governments
8. John likes to work three twelve-hour shifts in week. He concentrates on his work and has a lot of time to do other things during the rest of the week. what is a major concern of long shifts?
a. Accident rates drop as hours worked increase
b. John must be exceeding the maximum-hours-of-work provision of employment standards
c. Accident rates increase quick as hours increase
d. John may not see his family for an extended period
e. John may make errors
9. Which of the following is true regarding worker age and accidents?
a. Younger workers have accidents much more frequently than older workers
b. Age is not a factor when considering workplace accidents
c. Younger workers have fewer accident due to increased literacy skills
d. Older workers have a high number of accidents than younger workers
e. Older workers only have more accidents if they are poorly trained
10. which of the following is not a personal factor related to increased incidents of workplace injury?
a. Age of worker
b. Perceptual ability versus motor skill ability of worker
c. Motivation level of worker
d. Vision of worker
e. Literacy level of worker
11. Bob has been working with Stella, whom he dislikes. Both have to work at night directing traffic at a highway construction project. Which of the factors that contribute to unsafe conditions are present in Bob's situation?
a. Work stress, the job, and the schedule
b. The physical environment workstress, and the schedule
c. The physical environment, the psychological environment, and the schedule
d. Psychological climate, work schedule, and the job itself
e. None of the factors contribute to unsafe conditions
12. which of the following is not a stress factor that can increase accident rates in the workplace?
a. Hostility among employees
b. Poor illumination
c. Workplace temperature
d. Congested workplace
e. Economic conditions
13. which of the following is not a basic cause of workplace accidents that is most difficult to prevent?
a. Unsafe acts and chance occurrences
b. Unsafe acts
c. Unsafe conditions
d. Chance occurrences
e. Unsafe acts and unsafe conditions
14. Mariam, a supervisor at Great Pacile Industries, has received two complaints regarding unsafe working conditions from two of her employees, both of whom tend to be slower workers. what should Mariam do?
a. Ask her supervisor what she should do
b. Ignore the complaints, as these workers are not particularly productive
c. Refer these to the work place health and safety committee, which meets next month
d. Log these complaints and see if any other indicators of unsafe conditions appear
e. Investigate and remedy, as complaints are an indication of unsafe conditions
15. Which of the following would be permitted and appropriate as a selection test prior to employment?
a. A test of ability to lift 40 kilograms for a person applying for a job as baggage handler at an airport
b. An enquiry about an applicant's possible disabilities
c. A test of physical fitness for people applying for an administrative position
d. A physical exam for people applying for a job as a cashier at a grocery store
e. A test of vision for a computer web site designer
16. Aldo and his team have had extensive safe training but still insist on cutting corners on safe practices in order to get their jobs done faster. Which of the following is most likely to be effective in changing their behaviour?
a. Positive reinforcement such as rewards when they work safely
b. Institute a communication program to highlight the importance of safe
c. A discussion with a member of top management regarding the importance of training
d. Punishment such as supervision if caught not applying safety at work
e. Further training
17. Edith works as a logger in the forests of northern Canada. She has received a lot of training in safe and knows and understands the practice of safe. Edith, however, is paid on production so she works in a very unsafe way. What would be the problem here?
a. Edith does not value safe
b. The organization does not have a sufficient recognition system for safe practices
c. Edith needs more training in safe to increase the value of safe
d. Top management is not really committed to safe as the reward system does not support safe
e. The organization does not promote safety
18. What is the major difference between an employee wellness program and an employee assistance program (EAP)?
a. EAP and wellness programs are essentially the same
b. A wellness program assists employees with non medical programs
c. Wellness programs are funded by employees, EAPs are paid for by employers
d. An EAP is a proactive program to prevent ill health through lifestyle changes
e. An employee wellness program is a proactive program to prevent ill health through lifestyle changes
19. Which of the following is not an area in which wellness programs reduce costs to employers?
a. Reduced turnover
b. Increased profit
c. Reduced absences
d. Increased retention of workers
e. Reduced workers compensation costs
20. Which of the following would not be considered an employee wellness initiative?
a. Nutrition programs
b. Stop smoking programs
c. Physical1tness programs
d. Hawaii vacation programs
e. Head health programs
21. Which of the following is a major concern in the accommodation of an employee with a substance abuse issue?
a. They have to ensure the safe of employees as well as accommodating the specific employee
b. The person has to still perform the work required as well as all other employees
c. The accommodation must be limited to less than one month duration
d. They have to show that they are not promoting substance abuse
e. The employer must ensure that other employees don’t see this as preferential treatment
22. Bob works for Mega Corporation, a multinational company operating in Canada. Mega Corp. has a policy of random drug testing for all of its employees. Which of the following would be true in this situation?
a. Drug testing should only be done if the employee's behaviour justifies it
b. The employer can have random drug tests in Canada if it is their policy to do so
c. Random drug and alcohol testing is never permitted in Canada
d. Drug testing is a valid measure of impairment
e. Random drug testing is permitted under the International Labour Organization rules, which apply in Canada
23. Which of the following is not one of the controllable factors that contributes to repetitive strain injuries?
a. Cold temperatures
c. Repetition of movement
d. Age of the employee
e. Fixed working positions
24. After spending many hours at his computer workstation, Steve experienced a sore back and neck and arm pain along with limited movement of his hands. What would be most effective in dealing with Steve's situation?
a. Have Steve take shot breaks and stretch every hour
b. Get Steve a different computer
c. Have Steve move to a different job or type of work
d. Get a different chair for Steve
e. Encourage steve to get regular exercise outside the workplace
25. Bob has an excellent work crew-hardworking and productive. Every Friday, they have beer and pizza at the worksite. What would you advise Bob?
a. Non-alcoholic beverages should be served for those who don't drink beer
b. This should take place at a restaurant and Bob must ensure that people get home safely
c. Beer and pizza should never be associated with work
d. There should be a designated driver appointed
e. This is a great team-building and recognition activity
26. What is the most important aspect of a supervisor's role in safe ?
a. To ensure that workers are as productive as possible
b. To enforce safety rules
c. To instill in workers the desire to work safely
d. To train workers how to work safety
e. To minimize hazards in the workplace
27. Which of the following is not normally a responsibility of a joint health and safe committee?
a. Preventing hazardous situations
b. Promotion of measures to enhance health and safe
c. Approving compensation claims
d. Investigating accidents
e. Investigating employee concerns
28. Which of the following is not a remedy used by health and safe inspectors in Canada?
a. Install first aid equipment
b. Hire additional workers
c. Stop work order
d. Stop emissions
e. Stop using tools
29. Amar was has been injured in a workplace accident and is unable to work for eight weeks. Which of the following is not likely a direct impact of Amar's injury?
a. Lost productivity
b. Reduced employment costs for Amar's employer
c. Increase stress for amar and this family
d. Reduced feelings of employment fairness by Amar's coworkers
e. Reduced customer service
30. Which of the following is not a major consideration in the control of toxic substances?
a. Control of use
b. Testing of substances
c. Cost of supply
d. Accurate inventory
e. Exposure limits
31. Legislation governing the control of toxic substances includes biohazards such as infectious diseases.
32. Workplace accidents are generally caused by a lack of quality management.
33. The accident rate increases at the end of the workday and accidents happen more frequently during the night shift. This is an example of how …… contribute to accidents.
a. Lack of taking
b. poor management
c. the job itself
d. work schedules
e. improper conditions
34. Which of the following is not generally considered an unsafe condition leading to workplace accidents?
a. Hazardous procedures
b. Unsafe storage
c. Improper illumination
d. Personality characteristics
e. Defective equipment
35. While certain personality traits within the context of specific jobs can lead to accidents; there are also specific traits that are common across all accident repeaters.
36. Which of the following is an unpreventable cause of workplace accidents?
a. A head attack during the operation of machinery
b. Work schedules that cause fatigue
c. Lack of employee literacy skills
d. Tendency to operate machinery at an unsafe speed
e. Skill sets that do not match job requirement, such as a lack of appropriate motor skills
37. Which of the following groups of employees should participate in a safe training program?
a. Older employers
b. Operational employees only
c. New employees
d. Younger employees
e. All employees
38. Bob is undergoing a functional ability evaluation (FAE). Which of the following is not a purpose of the FAE?
a. Determine if Bob can be accommodated at work
b. Determine whether Bob’s work issues can be addressed through physiotherapy
c. Determine if Bob's health will improve
d. Determine if Bob will be safe on the job
e. Determine if Bob can go back to work
39. Since the workers most likely to be involved in accidents are young (under30), what should an employer do to prevent accidents among young workers?
a. Hire only workers over30
b. Recognize that young workers need special attention
c. Double the amount paid to younger workers
d. There is nothing employers can do to change the accident rate among young workers
e. Provide the training required by law to young workers
40. Which of the following is not generally considered a strategy for reducing unsafe acts that lead to workplace accidents?
a. Selection testing
b. Positive reinforcement
c. Providing higher compensation
d. Top-management commitment
e. Training and education
41. It is very important that managers focus on unsafe conditions because the majority of workplace accidents are caused by the improper use of personal protective equipment.
42. Which of the following is an example of an employee wellness initiative?
a. 100 percent dental coverage
b. On-site daycare
c. Vacation benefits
d. A blood pressure testing clinic in the company cafeteria
e. Counselling services following a family tragedy
43. Many companies have been slow to implement employee wellness programs because it is difficult to make them cost-effective.
44. which of the following is not a benefit of an employee wellness program?
a. Wellness programs reduce absenteeism.
b. wellness programs increase the costs of a benefits program.
c. Wellness programs improve customer service.
d. wellness programs improve retention rates.
e. Wellness programs improve employee performance.
45. Which job is likely to be most stressful for an employee?
a. A grocery clerk
b. A legal secretary who works under tight deadlines and composes documents that must always be right
c. A snowplough driver who drives on snow-covered roads
d. A pilot flying an airplane
e. A computer repair technician
46. which of the following is not one of the aspects of a job that tends to reduce job stress?
a. Control overwork
b. Comfortable work environment
c. Support of a supervisor
d. Full use of employee skill
e. Task clarity
47. Marian's job entails long hours at a computer screen. which of the following is not a health issue arising out of long periods of time using video displays?
a. Tingling or numb fingers
e. Reduce vision
48. which of the following is not a factor typically included in a workplace violence policy?
a. Consequence of violating the policy
b. Statement of condemnation of workplace violence
c. Reporting procedures
d. Definitions of prohibited conduct
e. Method of identifying those who may become violent
49. Bob, a bus driver at City Transit Company, has complained that one of his passengers appeared threatening and was abusive toward hi n to the extent that Bob fears for his safety. What should Bob's employer do?
a. Tell Bob not to worry about it
b. Report the issue to the police, monitor that bus route
c. Train Bob in conflict resolution
d. Transfer Bob
e. Send Bob on unpaid leave
Fair Treatment: The Foundation of Effective Employee Relations
1. Albacore Inc. employees go to work on time, fulfil their job duties, and go home. Tuna Inc. employees love their jobs, can be seen at work late at night and on weekends completing projects that they are working on and doing a far better job than the people at Alba core. which of the following would be true?
a. Albacore pays better than Tuna
b. Tuna's employees are more engaged than Albacore's
c. Albacore's management does a better job than Tuna's
d. Tuna ha below average employer
e. Albacore does a better ob of selection than Tuna
2. If Albacore Incorporated's employees are engage: which of the following would not necessarily be true?
a. The employees are most productive
b. The employees are genuinely committed to the organization's success
c. The employees are happier
d. The employees put forward their best ideas
e. The employees improve the quality of service
3. What does your textbook define as a positive, fulfilling, work-related state of mind characterized by vigour, dedication, and absorption?
a. Tiployee satisfaction
b. Worker engagement
c. Employee productivity
d. Employer satisfaction
e. Employee engagement
4. Jennifer's company has an ongoing production issue that she cannot understand. while her company uses similar technology and methods to its competitors, her company is less efficient. This will cause extreme difficulty for the company in the long term. which of the following is likely to generate innovative improvements for their situation?
a. Call an industrial engineering consultant they have used before
b. Look closely at what the competitors are doing
c. Point out to employees that competitors are more productive
d. Put a suggestion program in place for operational employees with rewards for improvements gained
e. Ask managers for more ideas for improvement
5. Bob s confused. He has read that if you communicate with employees they will feel more involved with the organization so he, as CEO of Albacore Corp, has written an email to employees explaining how the company is doing with particular emphasis on its share price performance. Employees seemed to resent Bob's email. What advice would you give Bob?
a. Employees generally are not interested in employer communication
b. Communication should always come from the company's human resource department, not its CEO
c. Communication should only take place after surveying employee interest
d. Information must be relevant to employee to be useful
e. Communication is two way, it involves communication from employees
6. An effective approach to employee engagement is to give employees information on their performance and the prospects for the operations.
7. Which of the following s not a condition of layoff?
a. The situation may be short term
b. The situation is expected to be temporary
c. There is no work for employees to do
d. / The nature of the work has changed
e. Employees are expected to be called back to work
8. What is the major difference between layoff and downsizing?
a. Downsizing is permanent, layoff is temporary
b. Laid-off workers are entitled to severance pay, downsized workers are not
c. Laid-off workers are eligible for employment Insurance, downsized employees are not
d. Downsizing is termination for cause
e. Downsizing involves a larger number of workers
9. Bob has to downsize the operation of his business and must terminate the employment of 12 people. Bob wants to do this n as straightforward a fashion as possible so he is thinking of sending an email to all of the employees concerned. What would you advise Bob?
a. Bob should notify the employees by registered mail as the information is very important
b. Bob cannot terminate people without government approval
c. Bob should use the latest technology to terminate people so email and Facebook would be appropriate
d. Bob should simply remove the employees belongings and send the n to the employee
e. Bob should tell the employees individually and face to face as loss of employment is quite devastating
10. which of the following is not true about layoffs?
a. Manage intends to recall employees when work is again available
b. Layoffs occur when there is no work available for employees
c. Layoffs usually involve unionized workers
d. Layoff is a euphemism for termination
e. Management expects the no-work situation to be temporary
11. which of the following statements is correct regarding the term "Just cause'?
a. Just cause is not clearly defined and so is set by the employer
b. Just cause is not clearly defined but is set in the context in which behaviour occurs
c. Just cause is defined in employment standards legislation
d. "just cause" is defined in the C:ivl statutes of Canada
e. Just cause is defined by the employer
12. Which of the following would not be considered insubordination?
a. Going around the supervisor playing organizational politics
b. Attempting to undermine or remove the boss from power
c. Refusing to do assigned appropriate work when there is no safety issue
d. Creating a blog criticizing the employer
e. Arguing with a coworker
13. What is first foundation in effective employee discipline?
a. An appeals process
b. A set of clear rules and regulations
c. A system of progressive penalties
d. Employee discipline is against most labour legislation
e. A montoring system
14. Bob has been moved from a management position to a clerical position even though his performance as manager exceeded expectations. Monica was moved into Bob's job. Bob complained and was told that if he was not pleased he could quit. What would you advise Bob's employer on this?
a. It is better for the organization to make its intentions to fire Bob known
b. The organization can assign Bob as they see fit
c. If Bob quits, he can sue for constructive dismissal
d. Bob can be demoted as long as he is not the top performer in the organization
e. Bob can quit and he is gone
15. Jessica felt that she was not treated well when she was terminated from her position at Bob's autobody shop. She did not see any reason why she had lost her job and felt that she was given insufficient notice. On top of that, she thought Bob was rude. What is a likely course of action for Jessica?
a. Jessica can complain to the human rights commission
b. Jessica can complain to the labour relations board
c. Jessica can file a wrongful dismissal suit as she feels unfairly treated
d. Jessica may leave quietly
e. Jessica will ask for her job back
16. Which of the following is not a recommended step for avoiding wrongful dismissal?
a. Schedule the termination interview in a private location
b. Include two members of management in the termination meeting
c. Insist on lust cause for dismissal even if it cannot be proven
d. Use termination letters in all cases, clearly stating the settlement offer
e. Document all disciplinary action
17. Which of the following is not a step in a termination interview?
a. Provide counselling for the employee
b. Review the severance package for the employee
c. Describe the situation and reason for termination
d. Get to the point
e. Listen to the employee
18. Outplacement counselling, by which terminated employees are trained and counselled in the efforts of securing a new position, are required by law after l2 months of employment.
19. Bob is excited to apply for a job with Southern Credit Union because he views this organization as one that does excellent work for the community. Which driver of employee engagement does Bob attractive?
a. Working hours
b. Pays ystem
c. Company image and reputation
d. Senior leadership
e. Opportunities for learning
20. Which of the drivers of engagement seems to be most important?
a. Pay system
b. Senior leadership
c. Company image and reputation
d. Fair treatment
e. Opportunities for learning
21. One of the top drivers of engagement around the world is the sincere interest by senior management in the well-being of employees
22. Sam, an employee with the city, has state a blog discussing, among other things, his life at work with the city. What should his employer do about this?
a. Nothing, Sam's blog is Sam's business
b. Move Sam to the city's communications department
c. Use Sam's blog as publicity for the city
d. Monitor it and if the content is critical of the city management, fire Sam
e. Issue guidelines for employees who wish to blog outlining what should and should not be included in the blog
23. Bob, as CEO, wishes to enhance communication with the 250 employees of his company. In particular, he wishes to share some exciting new developments for the company with the employees. What should he do?
a. Send an email to all employees with his news
b. Post the information on the company website
c. Create a blog and Facebook page
d. Talk to his staff either in small groups or in a large group
e. Send a letter to each employee's home
24. Which of the following is not considered a benefit to having formal employee opinion surveys and suggestion programs?
a. They give employees several channels through which to communicate with management.
b. The reduced risk that employees will embarrass the company through a blog.
c. They can offer incentives to employees such as cash awards
d. Management can continually monitor employees' feelings and concerns.
e. There is less likelihood that small problems will grow into big ones.
25. Mark has decided to no longer employ Jessica in his auto body shop. Jessica is a good worker and there is work that she could do but Mark is reducing his staff numbers. What would you advise Mark?
a. Mark can terminate Jessica as long as he pays reasonable severance, generally 3-4 weeks per year of service
b. Mark cannot terminate Jessica as that is a violation of her implied contract
c. Mark can terminate Jessica with 2 weeks’ notice or pay in lieu
d. Markean1re anyone at anytime as the shop is his business
e. Mark must notify the ministry of labour if he is going to terminate Jessica
26. Ten percent of the workers at Albacore Corp. have been terminated in a corporate downsizing and Mariam, the human resource manager, seems to be very concerned with the mood of the remaining employees. Why would this be a concern?
a. Remaining employees tend to advance more rapidly than before
b. Remaining employees are generally pleased to see a smaller organization
c. Remaining employees now have greater income
d. Remaining employees represent the best as the others are gone
e. Remaining employees maybe much less engaged if they see that the organization has not treated people fairly
27. The fact that companies must give advance notice to the group and their union when terminating 10 or more employees at the same time is dictated by what?
a. Fear of union retaliation
b. Common decency
c. Group termination laws
e. Company policy
28. Which of the following is not a common alternative to layoffs?
a. Voluntary unpaid leave
b. Reducing the work week through government programs that include El elements
c. Making use of contingent employees
d. Voluntary reduction n pay
e. Permanent downsizing
29. Discipline is a procedure intended to correct an employee's behaviour, which leads to personality conflicts with management.
30. which of the following is not true about dismissal for just cause?
a. There is no clear definition of what constitutes "Just cause" for dismissal.
b. An allegation of just cause must look at not only the alleged behaviour but the entirety of the employment relationship.
c. Just cause can include incompetence, insubordination, and persistent absence or lateness.
d. The fundamental question is whether or not a manager wants to continue the employment relationship.
e. It is crucial to investigate fully and fairly any case of just cause before any decision is made.
31. which of the following is not a characteristic of a fair and just employee discipline system?
a. An appeals system
b. A warming system
c. A progressive system
d. A peer-based system
e. A clear set of rules and expectations
32. In most cases of wrongful dismissal, employers are required to pay punitive damages
33. When an employee s terminated without reasonable notice, what is the employer guilty of?
a. Irresponsible management
b. Punitive damages
c. Wrongful dismissal
d. A just cause complaint
34. What is generally considered a reasonable amount of notice for dismissal without just cause?
a. 2 weeks per year
b. 2 weeks
c. 24 months
d. 3 to 4 weeks per year
e. 1 day per month
35. which of the following is not one of the typical reactions of employees in a termination interview?
c. Violent outbursts
e. Emotional tears
36. When planning a termination interview, you should do all of the following, except:
a. Have two management employees attend the meeting
b. Schedule the interview on the Friday
c. Have complete documentation
d. Have a pr ate location
e. Avoid pre-holidays
1. Which of the following would be considered to be a union in the context of labour relations?
a. An association of independent doctors who negotiate with government regarding their fees
b. A student union
c. A group of employees who have agreed to work with their employer on community projects
d. A group of truck owners negotiating with shippers regarding fees
e. A group of workers who have been recognized by the Ministry of Labour as a union
2. Which of the following would not be a purpose of unions in Canada?
a. To gain greater control over jobs
b. To change the political system
c. To increase pay
d. To increase job satisfaction
e. To increase job security
3. Apollo Corporation offered pay and benefits equal to its unionized competitors while offering a very participative management style so that employees were very engaged in the workplace. what strategy is Apollo following?
a. Union matching
b. Union acceptance
c. Union suppression
d. Union avoidance
e. Union substitution
4. Which the following would be considered to be an industrial union?
a. International brotherhood of electrical workers
b. Bakery and confectionary workers union
c. Plumbers and pipefitters union
d. Canadian airline pilots association
e. Machinists union
5. which oft he following is not a step in the labour relations process?
a. Employer notification of organizing campaign
b. The union receives official recognition
c. Negotiation of collective agreement
d. Day-to-day contract administration
e. Employees decide to seek collective representation
6. Which of the following is the most important condition leading to unionization?
a. Dissatisfaction and a belief that collective action will provide a remedy
b. Poor working conditions
c. Low pay
e. A belief in collective action
7. John, an employee at Abacore Corporation, has just signed an authorization card as part of the union's membership drive and he now considers himself to be a member of the union. What could you tell him about the authorization card?
a. It allows entry into union meetings
b. It is used by the union to show support when the union applies to the labour relations board for certification
c. It will expire within a month
d. It is a legal contract between the union and John under which the union promises to represent John
e. It can be transferred from employer to employer
8. Bob, director of human resources at Tradeco Corp., has learned that a union-organizing drive is occurring in his organization. What can Bob do?
a. Hold a meeting with employees telling the employees that they will lose their benefits if they join a union
b. Raise employees' pay to avoid the union
c. Fire workers who he suspects are involved in the organizing campaign
d. Hold a meeting with employees telling the employees the company's position but not threatening employees
e. Prohibit employees from communicating with the union on or of the job
9. The employees of Evergreen Restaurant represented by a national union, feel that the union has not done a good job for them and that they maybe better off without a union. What can these employees do?
a. They can organize and apply to the Labour -Relations Board for decertification
b. Nothing, once the union is certified, it is permanent
c. They can ask the employer to remove them from the union
d. They can ask another union to work for them
e. They can individually leave the union
10. which of the following is not a step n the union-organizing campaign?
a. The organizing campaign
b. Initial contact
c. Formation of an employer/employee organizing committee
d. The outcome
e. Initial organizational meeting
11. What does an employee sign to indicate his or her willingness to have the union act as his or her representative for purposes of collective bargaining?
a. An authorization card
b. A union card
c. A union contract
d. A bargaining release form
e. An organizing contract
12. According to labour regulations in Canada, what are employers not allowed to do when dealing with a union organizing movement?
a. Prohibit distribution of union literature on company property or time
b. Assemble employees to discuss their views, provided meetings are optional and employees are informed in advance
c. Express their views and opinions regarding unions
d. Increase wages and make pro notions while the Labour Relations Board s considering the application for certification
e. State their position regarding the desirability of remaining non-union
13. If a company believes that employees wish to be recognized by a union and has adopted a union-acceptable strategy, in most of Canada it can voluntarily recognize a union as the bargaining agent for its employees and bypass the certification process.
14. In most jurisdictions, 1abour relations boards can grant automatic certification without a vote of the membership, but the application for certification must demonstrate interest at what level?
a. 75to 85 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 25to 45 percent
d. 75 percent
e. 50 to 55 percent
15. When there is evidence of violations of fair labour practice during a union organizing campaign, what can the Labour Relations Board do?
a. Hold a representation vote
b. Refuse automatic certification
c. Reject the application for certification
d. Hold a pre-hearing vote
e. Decertify the application
16. Which of the following is not a typical or required provision of collective agreements in Canada?
a. Minimum one-year contract duration
b. No strike or lockout provision
c. Arbitration clause
d. Members' rights clause
e. Management rights clause
17. The area de1ned by the bargaining limits of each side, in which compromise is possible, is known as what?
a. Collective bargaining goals
b. Distributive zone
c. Grounds for compromise
d. Bargaining zone
e. Bargaining limits
18. A win-win approach based on training is the fundamentals of effective problem solving and conflict resolution, in which the interests of all stakeholders are taken into account, is know as what?
a. Mutual gains bargaining
b. Zone bargaining
c. Third-party arbitration
e. Distributive bargaining
19. Mariam has just filled a grievance claiming that an employee with less seniority than her received a preferred position in the company. What would be the normal process for this?
a. A written form goes to the supervisor and if not resolved goes directly to arbitration
b. A verbal complaint goes to the director of human resources
c. A written form goes to the supervisor and if not resolved a strike results
d. A written form goes to the supervisor and it will be resolved
e. A written grievance form goes to the supervisor and then sequentially goes back and forth between union and employee until resolved
20. Which factor tends to greatly improve the relationship between management and union and reduce grievances in the workplace?
a. Avoid grievance by agreeing with the union on most points
b. Build a cooperative and harmonious relationship
c. Push issues to grievance to show that management is in control
d. Take a hard line on negotiations
e. Demonstrate strong management behaviour
21. Rights disputes are not a general concern of the union and do not usually lead to arbitration.
22. Mike has joined a union that he believes is the Canadian Labour Congress (CLC). What would be true of the CLC?
a. The CLC s an association of labour unions, not a union itself
b. The CLC negotiates for its members in organizations across Canada
c. The CLC has its headquarters in Chicago, Illinois
d. It is a national Union
e. The CLC M an industrial union
23. Which of the following is not part of labour law in Canada?
a. Procedures for certification of a union
b. Prohibition of unfair practices by management or labour
c. Provision for strike while a collective agreement is in force
d. Requirements that disputes arising out of interpretation of collective agreement be settled by arbitration
e. Requirement of a one-yea minimum for a collective agreement
24. Which of the following is currently an area in which there is increased interest n union representation?
a. Construction trades
b. Heavy industry
c. Blue-collar work
d. white-collar and professional work
25. Hassan, a 24-year-old union member, is dismayed that a lot of effort by his union is going toward negotiating a better pension plan for members. what likely happening in the case of Hassan's union?
a. The union feels that pensions are the only place that it can negotiate
b. The union is responding to a demographic trend toward an older workforce
c. The union is responding to a trend of global competition
d. The union does not like younger workers
e. The union is part of a trend toward unionization of white-collar employees
26. Which of the following is true about regular certification?
a. Regular certifications are not the usual way of certifying a union in Canada
b. Regulations regarding regular certifications are the same across Canada
c. Regular certification is required even when voluntary recognition occurs
d. Most regular certifications occur without votes
e. Regular certifications always require votes in all jurisdictions
27. Which of the following is a source used by management in the preparation for negotiation but not used by the union?
a. Review economic trends
b. Obtain input from supervisors
c. Analyze grievances
d. Analyze other collective agreements
e. Deter nine cost estimates of proposals
28. Jasmine is a member of a bargaining committee on the management side with her organization and she is heading into her initial bargaining meeting. What is she likely to experience?
a. Representatives will present their proposals with rational and each group will than leave to discuss
b. Representatives of each side will deal with issues one by one and attempt to reach agreement
c. A collective agreement will be concluded
d. The negotiation is likely to be loud and all members of the committee all have a say
e. Agreement will be reached on at least one item
29. Ken, chief negotiator for management and David, negotiator fort the union, are meeting to understand the problems that have led to the proposals that they each have put forward in negotiation. They hope to come up with ideas that will address these problems. what type of negotiation is happening in this circumstance?
30. Ken and David and their committees have reached a collective agreement. What is the next step in the process of negotiating a collective agreement?
a. Both management and union membership must approve the agreement
b. The agreement is done, it comes into effect
c. The agreement must be approved by an arbitrator
d. The agreement must be approved by a mediator
e. The Labour-Relations Board must approve the agreement
31. Mary has been a mediator in a labour dispute. What does Mary do in this role?
a. Mary comes up with solutions for both sides
b. Mary talks to both sides and then reports to the Labour Relations Board
c. Mary works with both sides so that they can reach their own agreement
d. Mary meets both sides and tell them to agree
e. Mary dictates a solution that both sides must accept
32. Which of the following is not generally considered a sign of union-organizing activity among employees?
a. The appearance of stranger in the parking lot
b. Disappearance of employee lists or directories
c. An increased turnover rate among production line employees
d. An increase in the number or nature of employee complaints or grievances
e. More inquiries than usual about benefits, wages, promotions, and other HR policies and procedures
33. In most jurisdictions, if an employer would prefer that its employees retain non-union status it is virtually impossible to campaign against such activity without breaking several labour laws.
34. If employees wish to pursue a collective bargaining process and join a union, what is the first step?
a. Employees must form an in-house organizing committee
b. Employees nust sign authorization cards
c. Employees must wait for union organizers to target their employer
d. The employees and union must initiate contact
e. Employees must inform their immediate managers of their intent to join the union
35. Most union-organizing campaigns must be settled by a representation vote held by the Labour Relations Board.
36. When is it appropriate for a labour relations board to grant automatic certification?
a. When a union requests a pre-hearing vote
b. When a representation vote fails
c. When an application for certification has 25 to 45 percent support
d. When the employer has engaged in unfair labour practices
e. When 25 percent or less of the employee group has signed authorization cards
37. Once a group of employees has entered into a collective bargaining unit and is represented by a union, they must continue being represented by that union for at least 10 years.
38. Which of the following is not a typical form of a union security clause in a collective bargaining agreement?
a. An open shop
b. A closed shop
c. The Rand formula
d. A modified optional shop
e. A union shop
39. Which of the following is not a typical step in the collective bargaining process?
a. Face-to-face negotiations
b. A strike or lockout
c. Obtaining approval for the proposed contract
d. Preparation for bargaining
e. Side negotiations by members
40. A collective agreement is usually approved based not on the 1nal contract but on a memorandum of settlement.
41. When a supervisor refuses to accept a written grievance from an employee and union steward, and the employee refuses to accept that decision, what is the next step?
a. The grievance is submitted to arbitration
b. Senior management, senior labour relations specialists, and top union officials discuss the grievance
c. The grievance is discussed by an HR manager or labour relations specialist, the employee, and the union steward
d. The employee can be terminated for insubordination
e. A strike vote is held
42. Which of the following is true about the grievance procedure in collective agreements?
a. Arbitration almost always 1nds in favour of the employee
b. Most grievances are settled, abandoned, or withdrawn before arbitration
c. A union steward only becomes involved once the grievance has been rejected by a supervisor
d. HR managers rarely become involved in the grievance procedure
e. Grievances can be made verbally
43. In a unionized workplace, grievances are usually handled informally, because formal grievance procedures are not very effective for handling day-to-day problems.